I am starting this discussion for those who want to improve their knowledge of grammar. Dear learners! If you have any questions, I'll be glad to answer to them.
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Yes, meanings are the same. It is The Passive Voice. It means that somebody called you. As to the Tenses, they are used in the same way both in Active and Passive. In your example there may be the following difference:
1. (it was yesterday or some days ago)
2. (it has been right now)
senthil said:
Hi Mam.. I understood your explanations..but that is not my question Mam.. My question is voice based(passive).. exact meaning of those sentences.. are both sentences equal in meaning..? i hope you understand my question otherwise i will try to explain again Mam..also i would be more happy if you explain little about voice(active,passive) with few examples..
My dear! Your grammar is really bad! Such English is called "street English" in the US. It means that people don't have academic background. You should start studying grammar from the very beginning. I can recommend you Raymond Murphy's "Essential and English Grammar in use". I can send them to you if you e-box can receive 20 Mb. If it is so, then tell me your email.
ck_kha said:
my grammar so bad when I want to say i try to say is out i didn't think about that because I ve starting speak before learn garmmar now when I want to write English I feel so hard.
Hi Senthil! Nice to see you here again! I was missing you! You are one of the most active members of my group! As to your question. In fact, you are asking to explain you the difference between Present Perfect (second sentence) and Simple Past (first one). It is not easy to make it clear in a few words. So, I will explain the main idea and you can ask me more particular questions later, OK?
The Present Perfect Tense describes an action that has already taken place but still has a result in the present. For exampe:
I have bought a car ( means "I still drive it")
I have read that book (means "I remember what it is about")
I've just come ( means "I am at home now") and so on.
The Past Simple Tense defines an action that took place in the past without connecting it with the present. It is just a fact that it was and nothing more. For example:
I bought a car last year (If you say this sentence you will immediately be asked "Are you still driving it?". It doesnt sound like that)
I read that book ("Do you still remember what it is about?")
If you know, English Tenses are very emotional. So, from time to time we use them to express or to hide or emotions. As to Present Perfect it is sometimes used when we want to "near" the events of the past to the present. For example:
I have returned from the US recently (nobody knows when it was!)
Compare with the following:
I returned from the US 7 years ago (Wow!)
On the other hand we sometimes use Past Simple to emphase that the recent event is meaningless for us. For example:
He called me yesterday (it is a fact, nothing more)
Compare with:
He has called me (well, I am still thinking about that)
Have I answered your question? If not, please, ask again
senthil said:
Hi Mam.. Im Back.. Could you explain what is the meaning and difference between these two sentences..when does each can be used..?1.I was called
2.I have been called
my grammar so bad when I want to say i try to say is out i didn't think about that because I ve starting speak before learn garmmar now when I want to write English I feel so hard.
Both constructions have the same meaning but the first is used in negative sentences, the second is used in affirmative/interrogative sentences. We can use these constructions almost in any part of the sentence. For example:
1. I know neither him nor his brother or I don't know either him or his brother. (Direct object, the first option is better but both are right)
2. I don't want either to go anywhere or to stay at home tonight (Direct complex object, affirmative is better than negative)
3. I have been neither to the USA nor anywhere else (Modifier of place, negative is better)
4. I didn't see him either yesterday or the day before (Modifier of time, both options are good)
5. He is neither full nor thin ( he is medium-built) (Definition)
6. Don't call either me or my daughter! (Indirect object)
The main problem appears when we want to use these constructions in a subject. In this case it is necessary to remember about agreement of number and person of a subject and predicate. In this particular case we should agree them by the last word of this complex subject. For example:
Neither my husband nor Iam going anywhere today.
Neither he nor his brotherhas been there.
There are also other uses of the parts of these constructions. I will tell about that later.
Have I answered your question?
farid ahmad said:
hi tanya this time i have you to learn me about Neither ...nor and either ...or .....if you do not mind giving me some information...? thank you.
Farid! I hope you've got my explanations about COULD. As to your new question, I have already answered to it. See the beginning of this duscussion. If you still have questions after reading it than ask me once again, OK?
farid ahmad said:
hi tanya i need to know what is "should have, could have,might have and must have' .........useing ......i mean how can we know to use these in sentences... sometimes i do mistake in the sentence instad of could have i use might have or should have ...you know that english is my 2nd language i cannot speak english very well... please learn me these.. how can i use and also if you do not mind writing one example for each one too. thank you ...
Farid asks: "What is the difference between "could do" and "could have done" and when to use this or that form?"
It is a good question. "Could" is the most problematic modal verb. It can be used in both forms but meanings are different.
COULD + infinitive without "to"
1. In Present tense we use this form when we want to make our request softer, more polite (mostly when we talk to peole we don't know, old people, those who occupy official positions). For examle:
Could I talk to Mr. Brown? (when you are callind an office or coming to some place where you are not known) Could you tell me how to get to....? ( on the street) Could you make me a favor? (no matter who you are applying to because you are asking for a favor)
2. In the Past Tense this form means:
a) that one was able to do something in the past:
I could drive at the age of 15.
b) that you are almost sure that the action didn't take place (interrogative and negative forms):
Could he be there yesterday? (I don't believe, it is unlikely)
He couldn't be there yesterday! ( same)
COULD + Rerfect Infinitive without "to"
We use it in Past tense in the following cases:
1. When we want to say that the action could take place but didn't:
He could have entered the university last year (but he didn't)
2. When we want to say that we wouldn't have been able to do something if we had even wanted to (in negative form):
I couldn't have killed that man if I had even hated him
3. In negative form it also means we are almost sure that we or someome else didn't do something:
I couldn't have noticed you in the crowd ( maens: Most probably, I didn't notice you in the crowd)
4. When we want to convey reproach with irony:
They could have invited us to the yesterday's party! (but they didn't!)
I have already answered this question. See page 3 of this discussion, last reply. As to "had" it is used in the past tenses. For example:
He had nothing to do. (Simple Past)
Lieza said:
I am confuse about using the "have", "has" and "had". In my understanding, "had" we use if in past tense and must before the verb, am i right? Can you explain with simple example so that i can understand.
Hello Tanya!
I am so glad to meet you, you are explaining very well, You are right, we have the grammar books but sometimes it s very difficult to understand everything, you are like a live example for me, thank you you spend your time on us.
As for me I have a little quesions, let's begin with it:
I know the meaning of the modal verbs, I know a lot about them, but please explain the difference between ,, should'' and ,,ought to'', tell me some few words about ,, need'', I need your explanation, after what , I am sure, it would be easy for me to use them correctl y.
bye for now
Replies
Yes, meanings are the same. It is The Passive Voice. It means that somebody called you. As to the Tenses, they are used in the same way both in Active and Passive. In your example there may be the following difference:
1. (it was yesterday or some days ago)
2. (it has been right now)
senthil said:
ck_kha said:
The Present Perfect Tense describes an action that has already taken place but still has a result in the present. For exampe:
I have bought a car ( means "I still drive it")
I have read that book (means "I remember what it is about")
I've just come ( means "I am at home now") and so on.
The Past Simple Tense defines an action that took place in the past without connecting it with the present. It is just a fact that it was and nothing more. For example:
I bought a car last year (If you say this sentence you will immediately be asked "Are you still driving it?". It doesnt sound like that)
I read that book ("Do you still remember what it is about?")
If you know, English Tenses are very emotional. So, from time to time we use them to express or to hide or emotions. As to Present Perfect it is sometimes used when we want to "near" the events of the past to the present. For example:
I have returned from the US recently (nobody knows when it was!)
Compare with the following:
I returned from the US 7 years ago (Wow!)
On the other hand we sometimes use Past Simple to emphase that the recent event is meaningless for us. For example:
He called me yesterday (it is a fact, nothing more)
Compare with:
He has called me (well, I am still thinking about that)
Have I answered your question? If not, please, ask again
senthil said:
Beecan Beecansee said:
So "Neither...nor/either...or".
Both constructions have the same meaning but the first is used in negative sentences, the second is used in affirmative/interrogative sentences. We can use these constructions almost in any part of the sentence. For example:
1. I know neither him nor his brother or I don't know either him or his brother. (Direct object, the first option is better but both are right)
2. I don't want either to go anywhere or to stay at home tonight (Direct complex object, affirmative is better than negative)
3. I have been neither to the USA nor anywhere else (Modifier of place, negative is better)
4. I didn't see him either yesterday or the day before (Modifier of time, both options are good)
5. He is neither full nor thin ( he is medium-built) (Definition)
6. Don't call either me or my daughter! (Indirect object)
The main problem appears when we want to use these constructions in a subject. In this case it is necessary to remember about agreement of number and person of a subject and predicate. In this particular case we should agree them by the last word of this complex subject. For example:
Neither my husband nor I am going anywhere today.
Neither he nor his brother has been there.
There are also other uses of the parts of these constructions. I will tell about that later.
Have I answered your question?
farid ahmad said:
farid ahmad said:
It is a good question. "Could" is the most problematic modal verb. It can be used in both forms but meanings are different.
COULD + infinitive without "to"
1. In Present tense we use this form when we want to make our request softer, more polite (mostly when we talk to peole we don't know, old people, those who occupy official positions). For examle:
Could I talk to Mr. Brown? (when you are callind an office or coming to some place where you are not known)
Could you tell me how to get to....? ( on the street)
Could you make me a favor? (no matter who you are applying to because you are asking for a favor)
2. In the Past Tense this form means:
a) that one was able to do something in the past:
I could drive at the age of 15.
b) that you are almost sure that the action didn't take place (interrogative and negative forms):
Could he be there yesterday? (I don't believe, it is unlikely)
He couldn't be there yesterday! ( same)
COULD + Rerfect Infinitive without "to"
We use it in Past tense in the following cases:
1. When we want to say that the action could take place but didn't:
He could have entered the university last year (but he didn't)
2. When we want to say that we wouldn't have been able to do something if we had even wanted to (in negative form):
I couldn't have killed that man if I had even hated him
3. In negative form it also means we are almost sure that we or someome else didn't do something:
I couldn't have noticed you in the crowd ( maens: Most probably, I didn't notice you in the crowd)
4. When we want to convey reproach with irony:
They could have invited us to the yesterday's party! (but they didn't!)
Is it clear now?
himhttp://my.englishclub.com/group/practiseenglishwithtanya/forum/topics/what-do-you-want-to-know-about?page=7&commentId=2524315%3AComment%3A178454&x=1#
He had nothing to do. (Simple Past)
Lieza said:
I am so glad to meet you, you are explaining very well, You are right, we have the grammar books but sometimes it s very difficult to understand everything, you are like a live example for me, thank you you spend your time on us.
As for me I have a little quesions, let's begin with it:
I know the meaning of the modal verbs, I know a lot about them, but please explain the difference between ,, should'' and ,,ought to'', tell me some few words about ,, need'', I need your explanation, after what , I am sure, it would be easy for me to use them correctl y.
bye for now
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