Hi, my dear teachers,
Here are my sentences:
1. Tom wanted not to go to London.
2. Tom didn't want to go to london.
3. Mary wants not to learn any language.
4. Mary doesn't want to learn any language.
Which sentences are correct and why?
Thanks in advance and best wishes,
Replies
Dear Danny,
Thank you very much for helping me in this subject.
Best wishes,
Dear Bijan, I am not a grammar teacher, but I know for sure that a complement is an American term for an object. I have just copied the following from the American grammar book (see the attachment). Both sentences are correct and, yes, in the first sentence the gerund is used as a predicative noun.
Doc1.docx
Dear Danny,
I read somewhere on the internet that complements (or predicative nouns) are only used after linking verbs like the verb "to be", but objects are only used after verbs like "enjoy, finish and so on....".
Examples:
1. Her hobby is reading.
Reading= gerund = complement (predicative noun).
2. I enjoyed watching the film.
watching= gerund = object
Is the above subject correct or not?
Thanks a lot and best wishes,
Dear Bijan,
1. Yes, an object and a complement are the same parts of a sentence. These are just two different terms for the same.
2. No, an attribute is a part of a sentence while an adjective is a part of speech. An adjective can be used as an attribute of a noun, but an attribute is not necessarily an adjective. It may be a gerund, another noun, a prepositional phrase, some numeral.
3. No, there may be some preposition before the gerund. In this case the gerund will be a prepositional object:
I confessed to loving her.
She doesn't approve of my driving fast.
Thank you for your beautiful explanation.
1. Thus, an object (British) and the complement (American) are the same?
2. Can we say adjectives and attribute are the same, but a bit difference (attribute= a definition of part of sentence / adjective= a definition of a noun)?
3. I read somewhere that gerunds are used as attribute after the prepositions "of, for, in, at"?
http://usefulenglish.ru/grammar/the-gerund
Is it correct or not, please?
Thanks in advance and best wishes,
Dear Bijan, I saw and even answered your question:
"Dear Bijan, that is what I mean. If the gerund follows a predicate it is always a direct object. I mean that we can also use a gerund as a subject or an attribute".
Well, I will say it differently.
If the gerund is used as an object, it is always a direct object as well as the infinitive.
Now, about your second question. Firstly, an object (British) and the complement (American) is the same part of the sentence.
Secondly, the gerund can be a subject, an object/complement or an attribute. You know what a subject and an object are. AN ATTRIBUTE is a definition of some part of a sentence. For example:
I have a good car. As a part of speech, GOOD is an adjective. As a part of the sentence, it is an attribute.
My company covered all my traveling expanses. As a part of speech, TRAVELING is a gerund, as a part of the sentence it is an attribute.
Have I made myself clear?
Dear Danny,
As far as I know, the gerunds can be a subject, a compliment, or an object.
Now, we are talking about the gerunds as a direct object.
1. You said, "...the gerunds is always a direct object if it follows the predicate."
I think that we use the gerunds as a direct object, it MUST always follow the predicate (my opinion).
If my opinion is incorrect, please give us a few examples that the gerund is a direct object, but it doesn't follow the predicte, please?
2. What does "an attribute" mean here?
Does it mean compliment here, please?
Thanks in advance and best wishes,
Danny Clark said:
Dear Danny,
Thank you for nice reply.
I learned a lot of things about the gerunds and the infinitives here.
But I guess you haven't seen one of my questions, so I repeat it in below.
You said, " ...the gerund is always a direct object if it follows the predicate."
I think that if we use the gerund as a direct object, it MUST always follow the predicate (my opinion).
If my opinion is incorrect, could you give us a few examples that the gerund is a direct object, but it doesn't follow the predicate, please?
Thanks a lot and best wishes,
Well, now I am sure that the infinitive is always a direct object of a predicate, too.
Dear Bijan, that is what I mean. If the gerund follows a predicate it is always a direct object. I mean that we can also use a gerund as a subject or an attribute.
Bijan said:
-
1
-
2
of 2 Next