Hi, my dear teachers,
Here are my sentences:
1. Tom wanted not to go to London.
2. Tom didn't want to go to london.
3. Mary wants not to learn any language.
4. Mary doesn't want to learn any language.
Which sentences are correct and why?
Thanks in advance and best wishes,
Replies
Dear Danny,
Thank you very much for helping me in this subject.
Best wishes,
Dear Danny,
I read somewhere on the internet that complements (or predicative nouns) are only used after linking verbs like the verb "to be", but objects are only used after verbs like "enjoy, finish and so on....".
Examples:
1. Her hobby is reading.
Reading= gerund = complement (predicative noun).
2. I enjoyed watching the film.
watching= gerund = object
Is the above subject correct or not?
Thanks a lot and best wishes,
Thank you for your beautiful explanation.
1. Thus, an object (British) and the complement (American) are the same?
2. Can we say adjectives and attribute are the same, but a bit difference (attribute= a definition of part of sentence / adjective= a definition of a noun)?
3. I read somewhere that gerunds are used as attribute after the prepositions "of, for, in, at"?
http://usefulenglish.ru/grammar/the-gerund
Is it correct or not, please?
Thanks in advance and best wishes,
Dear Danny,
As far as I know, the gerunds can be a subject, a compliment, or an object.
Now, we are talking about the gerunds as a direct object.
1. You said, "...the gerunds is always a direct object if it follows the predicate."
I think that we use the gerunds as a direct object, it MUST always follow the predicate (my opinion).
If my opinion is incorrect, please give us a few examples that the gerund is a direct object, but it doesn't follow the predicte, please?
2. What does "an attribute" mean here?
Does it mean compliment here, please?
Thanks in advance and best wishes,
Danny Clark said:
Dear Danny,
Thank you for nice reply.
I learned a lot of things about the gerunds and the infinitives here.
But I guess you haven't seen one of my questions, so I repeat it in below.
You said, " ...the gerund is always a direct object if it follows the predicate."
I think that if we use the gerund as a direct object, it MUST always follow the predicate (my opinion).
If my opinion is incorrect, could you give us a few examples that the gerund is a direct object, but it doesn't follow the predicate, please?
Thanks a lot and best wishes,
Dear Danny,
Thanks a lot for your reply.
I believe that it is an interesting subject because I had never seen about it on any English language website on the internet (Are the gerunds and infinitives DO or IO?).
Now, you told me the gerunds are ALWAYS a direct object.
Thank you again.
In addition, I look forward to hearing from you about the infinitives (are always they direct objects or not?).
One question, please:
You told me in your answer: "...the gerund is ALWAYS a direct object if it follows the predicate."
I think that if we use the gerund as a direct object, it should always follow the predicate.
It is not possible we suppose another situation for using gerunds as a direct object (it is only my opinion that it is possible to be incorrect).
So,could you give students a few examples that the gerund is a direct object, but it doesn't follow the predicate, please?
Thanks in advance and best wishes,
Dear Danny,
Thank you very much.
This subject is a very nice lesson for me with your beautiful explanation.
Thus, can we say infinitives and gerunds are usually direct objects in sentences, please?
Thanks a lot and best wishes,
Dear Danny,
Thank you.
You told me "any language" is also an object.
So, can we say, "Not to learn = Indirect object/Any language = Direct object"?
Best wishes,
Dear Danny,
Thanks, I got the subject.
I asked the question because I read somewhere that infinitives and gerunds become negative with NOT.
And also, I read there that infinitives and gerunds can be used as objects in sentences, but I was confused about the meaning of the above sentences.
Thus, the sentence 1 means "had to'. Tom did not like to go to London, but he had to go.
The sentence 3 means that Mery does not like to learn any language.
Now, here is my question:
Are "to go" and "to learn" objects in the sentences 1 and 3?
Thanks a lot and best wishes,